Robert Adams
2009-07-03 17:10:33 UTC
The ear has a characteristic that if you apply a series of
harmonically-
related tones but leave out the fundamental, the brain will fill it
in
for you; in other words, if you mix 50Hz, 75Hz, and 100Hz together
you
will perceive the missing fundamental at 25 Hz. Many bass-enhancement
algorithms use this trick (although one has to question what happens
in the case where the bass energy is not single-frequency!).
What I would like to know is how far up in frequency this effect
occurs. It seems as if the ear transitions from waveform mode at low
frequencies to envelope mode at higher frequencies, so it seems
doubtful that the missing fundamental effect still occurs at higher
frequencies. For example, if I mix 2Hz, 3KHz and 4 KHz do I hear 1
KHz?
Thanks for any replies!
Bob Adams
harmonically-
related tones but leave out the fundamental, the brain will fill it
in
for you; in other words, if you mix 50Hz, 75Hz, and 100Hz together
you
will perceive the missing fundamental at 25 Hz. Many bass-enhancement
algorithms use this trick (although one has to question what happens
in the case where the bass energy is not single-frequency!).
What I would like to know is how far up in frequency this effect
occurs. It seems as if the ear transitions from waveform mode at low
frequencies to envelope mode at higher frequencies, so it seems
doubtful that the missing fundamental effect still occurs at higher
frequencies. For example, if I mix 2Hz, 3KHz and 4 KHz do I hear 1
KHz?
Thanks for any replies!
Bob Adams